CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 12 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 12 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 12 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions
There are total 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.

1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D, and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21. to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q. 25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no, 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no. from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided n few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each

Question 1.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes given below. (1)
Assertion (A) By the 17th century, the use of print diversified in China because of a blooming urban culture.
Reason (R) The Imperial Statç in China was the major producer of printed materials.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
In Awadh, peasants were led by which sanyasi who had earlier been to Fiji as an indentured labourer? (1)
(a) Baba Ramdev
(b) Baba Nagarjuna
(c) Baba Ramchandra
(d) Baba Parmanand
Answer:
(c) Baba Ramchandra

Question 3.
Which of the following options is/are correct about Balkan nationalism? (1)
I. The Balkan region became part of the conflict because of the Ottoman Empire.
II. The region comprised of ethnic groups included Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro, etc.
III. British and ethnic nationalities struggled to establish their identity.
Codes
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) Only II
(d) Only I
Answer:
(a) I and II

Question 4.
Read the facts regarding the Revolution of the Liberals in Europe during 1848. (1)
I. Abdication of the monarch.
II. universal male suffrage had been proclaimed.
Political rights to women were given.
Freedom of the press had been asked Kr.
Codes
(a) I and II are correct
(b) I, II, and III are correct
(c) I and IV are correct
(d) I, II, and IV are correct
Answer:
(d) I, II, and IV are correct

Question 5.
Following image is the personification of Germany corn mon 1v associated with the Romantic Era and the Revolutions of 1848.
Identify its name from among the following options. (1)

(a) Marianna
(b) Philip Viet
(c) Germania
(d) Laltalia
Answer:
(c) Germania

Question 6.
Arrange the following events in a chronological order (1)
I. Integration of Italy
II. Greek struggle for independence initiated
III. Unification of Germany
IV Agreement on Vienna Peace Settlement
Codes
(a) I, IV II, III
(b) IV,’ II, III, I
(c) IV, II, I, III
(d) I, II, III, IV
Answer:
(c) IV, II, I, III

Question 7.
The piece of land left uncultivated For the past 1 to 5 agricultural veau’s is called .. (1)
(a) barren land
(b) forest land
(c) grazing land
(d) fallow land
Answer:
(d) fallow land

Question 8.
Which of the following statements are not appropriate for defining Joint Forest Management? (1)
(a) JFM programmes have been launched by the Central Government.
(b) Under such programmes, village communities are assigned responsibility to protect and manage nearby forests.
(c) The areas concerned are usually degraded or even deforested areas which are managed by the forest department.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) JFM programmes have been launched by the Central Government.

Question 9.
Which one of the following conferences was convened to discuss environmental protection and sod economic development
at the global level in 1992? (1)
(a) Kyoto Protocol
(b) Montreal Protocol
(c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit
(d) World Summit on Sustainable Development
Answer:
(c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit

Question 10.
While travelling to Meghalava, Suchi found that farmers are using a different style of irrigation method. Which of the following
irrigation methods is popular in this Indian state? (1)
(a) Drip irrigation
(b) Guis
(c) Groundwater irrigation method
(d) Kuls
Answer:
(a) Drip irrigation

Question 11.
Identify the significant reason for power sharing from the following options. (1)
(a) Reduces socio-economic conflicts
(b) provides ethnic-cultural development
(c) Allows people to enjoy specific rights
(d) Restricts supremacy of one party.
Answer:
(a) Reduces socio-economic conflicts

Question 12.
Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect option.
(a) Even in democracy the Constitution can be misused.
(b) In reorganisation the Central Government shares its power with State Government.
(c) In coming together with the federation, all the constituent states have equal powers.
(d) Panchayati Rai is an example of people’s direct participation in decision-making.
Answer:
(b) In reorganisation the Central Government shares its power with State Government.

Question 13.
Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect option.
(a) Democracy promotes equality among citizens.
(b) Democracy enhances the dignity of the individual.
(c) Democracy provides a method to resolve conflicts.
(d) Democracy does not have enough room to correct mistakes.
Answer:
(d) Democracy does not have enough room to correct mistakes.

Question 14.
Anita is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment to Central Government positions. In how many languages as mentioned in the 8th Schedule can she opt to take the exam? Select the appropriate option. (1)
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 25
Answer:
(c) 22

Question 15.
Identify the correct statements about the theory of Federalism in the Indian Constitution. (1)
Statement I The Constitution declared India as a Union of States.
Statement II Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State Government is basic to the structure of the Constitution.
Statement III It is easy to make changes to this power-sharing arrangement.
Statement IV The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement.
Codes
(a) Statement I and II are right
(b) Statemcnt II and III are right
(c) Statement I and III are right
(d) Statement II and IV are right
Answer:
(a) Statement I and II are right

Question 16.
Which one of the following is not true about a democratic government? (1)
(a) Democratic government is a legitimate government.
(b) Democratic government is a responsive government.
(c) Democratic government is the people’s own government.
(d) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.
Answer:
(d) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.

Question 17.
Kamala owns a small flower shop near a temple. She wants to expand her shop by keeping exotic flowers and flower bouquets.
To whom she should approach for a very short-term credit? (1)
(a) Moneylenders as they provide short-term credit.
(b) Banks as they charge low interest.
(c) Cooperatives as they do not require collateral.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Cooperatives as they do not require collateral.

Question 18.
Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer from the given options.
Table for Comparison of Three Countries

Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries after every three years of service.
She has been given an opportunity to choose any one out of the three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job
location. She calculates average income of all these countries as per the given data and chooses to be transferred to country A.
Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A.
(a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable.
(b) Has the most equitable distribution of income ie
(c) National income of its citizens is higher
(d) Average income of its citizens is lower.
Answer:

Question 19.
According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage) in India was (1)

0ut of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in the primary sector is high?
(a) Workers in the primary sector are underemployed.
(b) Low job opportunities in the secondary sector
(c) Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors.
(d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in the secondary sector.
Answer:
(a) Workers in the primary sector are underemployed.

Question 20.
Farmers of a milk cooperative society are an example of
(a) organised primary sector
(b) unorganised primary sector
(c) organised secondary sector
(d) unorganised secondary sector
Answer:
(a) organised primary sector

Section B
Section B consists of 4 questions of 2 marks each

Question 21.
Why Martial law was imposed in Amritsar? (2)
Answer:
Martial law was imposed in Arnritsar because local leaders were picked up from Ainritsar and Mahatma Gandhi was not allowed to enter Delhi. On 10th April, the police in Amritsar fired upon a peaceful procession, provoking widespread attacks on banks, post offices and railway stations,

Question 22.
Study the world map thoroughly and find out the country which has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralization with participative democracy for the very first time. (2)

Answer:
A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralization with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the Municipal Council, enabling local inhabitants to make real decisions for their city. The city is divided into many sectors or wards.

Question 23.
Write any one major difference between agro and mineral-based industries. (2)
Or
what are minerals? Give two eatnp1es. Also name an two carrier rocks of minerals. (1+1)
Answer:
Agro-based industries are those industries which are dependent on agriculture to obtain their raw material. On the other hand, mineral-based industries are those industries which are dependent on mineral resources to obtain their raw material.
Or
Mineral is a homogeneous naturally occurring substance that has a definable internal structure. Minerals are important resources which are very useful for the national economy. The two examples of minerals are coal and iron-ore, Two carrier rocks of minerals are igneous and metamorphic rocks.

Question 24.
with respect to Indian banking system. illustrate any two important features of demand deposits. (2)
Answer:
Two important features of demand deposits are

• Demand deposits are accepted widely as a means of payment by way of a cheque along with currency.
• Demand deposits are closely linked to the working of the modem banking system, Such deposits earn an amount as interest. On the other hand, mineral-based industries are those industries which are dependent on mineral resources to obtain their raw material.

Section C
Section C consists of 5 questions of 3 marks each

Question 25.
Study the pie chart properly and answer the following questions (1+2)

(i) What are the constituents of formal and informal sources of credit?
(ii) Evaluate the credit features of cooperatives and banks.
Answer:
(i) Banks and cooperative societies are the constituents of the formal sector and moneylenders, friends and relatives, traders, landowners, large farmers, etc are the constituents of informal sector.
(ii) The credit features of cooperative and banks are as follows
Loan from Cooperatives This is the major source of cheap credit in rural areas. Loans to member of cooperative societies can be
provided for the purchase of agricultural implements, cultivation and agricultural trade fisheries, construction of houses and other expenses. Loan from Banks Some farmes take loan for cultivation from banks, at very low interest rates and at easy repayment terms. Banks also provide other facilities to such borrower.

Question 26.
Which is the highest tier of the Panchayati Raj? Explain its composition.
Or
Describe any three features of ‘unitary government’. (3)
Answer:
The highest tier of the Panchayati Raj System in rural areas is the Zila Parishad, The Zila Parishad coordinates the activities of all the Block Samitis in the whole district.
The composition of Zila Parishad are
All the Panchayat Samitis or MandaIs in a district together constitute the Zila Parishad.
Members of the Lok Sabha and MLAs of the district and some other officials of other district level bodies are also its members.
Zila Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the Zila Parishad.
Or
Three features of unitary government are as follows
(i) In unitary system, all powers are centralised in the hands of the Central Government and only centre is the reservoir of all state powers.
(ii) Another feature of unitary form of government is that laws of unitary system, unlike federation, are uniform because laws are made only by a single Central Government for the whole state.
(iii) One of the important feature of this system is that it may become despotic when the rulers are not faithful as there is no check upon the exercise of these unlimited powers.

Question 27.
Deepa. a 11-year-old girl, helps her parents in farming throughout the day. She is pale and thin. On the other hand. Geeta, living in Kerala goes to school daily and eats mid-day meals there. In the evening, she helps her parents in farming. What does this show? (3)
Answer:
This shows that Deepa lives in that part of rural India where the literacy level is low. She neither goes to school nor takes proper nutrition, She is not healthy. On the other hand, Geeta lives in that part of rural India which is prosperous such as the state of Kerala. She goes to school and eats mid-day meals that fulfills her nutritional needs, She is healthy also, ft also shows that the public facilities like free school nearby, provision of meals in the school hr the children ‘s provided by the State Government, This means that in the long run, Geeta will lead a better life than Deepa.

Question 28.
What are Software Technology Parks? State any two merits of them.
Answer:
Software Technology Parks are a cluster of software export units in which software technology companies develop ana export computer software and other professional services.
Two merits of Software Technology Parks are

• Creation of a large number of sobs with more than 30% women employment.
• Large contribution to the exports of India, bringing in valuable foreign exchange.

Question 29.
‘Credit has its own unique role for development’. Justify the statements with argument. (3)
Answer:
Credit has its own unique role for development because of the following reasons
Cheap and affordable credit can be used to set up small-scale or cottage industries.
Farmers can buy agricultural inputs with credit and thereby increase their crop production.
Credit is also needed by the manufacturing sector to buy raw materials, machines, pay wages to labourers. etc.

Section D
Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

Question 30.
Why did some people fear the effect of easily available printed hooks? Choose one example from Europe and one from India. (5)
Or
Give reason for the following. (2+3)
(i) Martin Luther was in favour of print and spoke out in praise of it.
(ii) The Roman Catholic Church began keeping an Index of Prohibited Books from the mid-16th century.
Answer:
Some people especially those from upper and powerful classes, teared the effect of easily available printed books because not everyone welcomed printed books and those who did, also had fear about them. Many were of the opinion that printed words and the wider circulation of books, would have a negative impact on people’s minds.

They feared that if there was no control over what was printed and read, tnen rebellious and irreligious thoughs might gain importance. There was also fear in the minds of scholars that the authority of valuable’ literature would be destroyed. The new print medium was criticised by religious authorities and monarchs, as well as by writers and artists.

Example, in Europe, Martin Luther was a German monk, priest, professor, and a Church reformer. He wrote ‘Ninety-Five Theses’ in 1517 and openly criticised many of the practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church.

A printed copy of this was pasted on a church door in Wittenberg. It challenged the Church to debate his ideas. Luther’s writings were immediately copied in vast numbers and read widely. This led to a division within the Church and led to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation.

In India, the British Government favoured censorship of the press and passed a law to hinder free circulation of newspapers and journals. The Vernacular Press Act provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials
Or
(i) Martin Luther was in favour of printing and spoke out in praise of it because it was a printing press through which he got a chance to criticise many of the corrupt practices of the Catholic Church. In 1517, Martin Luther wrote Ninety-Five Theses’ and pasted a printed copy of this on the Church door in Wittenberg. Very soon, thousands of copies of Luther’s. These were printed, spreading his ideas among people.

(ii) In mid-l6th century, the Roman Catholic Church began keeping an index of prohibited book as print and popular literature encouraged many distinctive interpretations of religious faiths and ideas. For example, in the 16th century, Menocchio. a miller
in Italy. began to read books available readily in his locality. He gave a new interpretation of the Bible and formulated a view of God and Creation which made the Roman Catholic Church angry. As a result. Menocchio was executed when the Roman Catholic Church began its inquisition to repress the heretical ideas.

Question 31.
Minerals are integral parts of our lives. Justify this statement with suitable examples. (5)
Or
How can biogas solve the energy problems in rural India? State some suggestions for the same.
Answer:
It is true that minerals are an integral parts of our lives.

• This can be understood through the following examples
• Almost everything that we use in our daily life, from a tiny pin to a towering building or a big ship, are all made from minerals.
• The railway lines and the paving of the roads, machinery, implements and tools too are made from minerals.
• Minerals form the basis of all industries
• Our food contains various minerals that are essential for our body. They are absorbed by the body.
• In conclusion, we can say that in all stages of development, human beings have used minerals for their livelihood,
• decoration, festivities, religious and ceremonial rites.

Or
Biogas can solve the energy problems in the rural areas due to the following reasons

• It produces gas having higher thermal efficiency than charcoal and kerosene.
• It provides a way for optimum utilisation of animal and plant waste.
• It produces enriched organic manure that can supplement or even replace chemical fertilisers.
• It burns smoothly and does not leave much residue behind.
• It is easy to produce and store.

Some suggestions to improve the biogas energy precautions in rural areas are as follows
Government should provide monetary assistance to people in the rural areas to set up biogas plants.
Awareness must be created for using this alternative sources of energy.

Question 32.
With the support of examples. illustrate how two groups may have different notions of development.
Or
‘National Development of country depends on the availability of public facilities.” How? (5)
Answer:
Two groups may have different notions of development.
For example, the local community’s notion of development on the case of construction of a dam was that the areas in which they live will be submerged and their will be great environmental degradation.

However, the government’s notion of development, in this case, would be that by raising the height of the dam, they would be able to provide more water to the people of Saurashtra region of Gujarat, which always suffers from water scarcity. In addition, more electricity would be generated with this measure, which would benefit all the people living in that area.
Or
It is right that national development of a country depends on the availability of public facilities. Public facilities are those provided by the government. They may be either highly subsidised or totally free of cost for the people.

They are important because poor people do not have enough income to be able to avail facilities provided by the private sector, resulting in difficulties faced like inadequate healthcare, poor nutrition, lack of education, etc. The utility of two public facilities available in India are

• The Public Distribution System (PDS) which provides fair average quality of food grains and other essential items to the weaker sections of the population at subsidised price.
• Healthcare in government hospitals and dispensaries, which is provided to all at subsidised rates. This includes outpatient as well as hospitalisation facilities.

Question 33.
Explain the term secularism. Explain four features of secularism in India. (5)
Or
How caste inequalities are still prevalent in India?
Answer:
Secularism refers to the separation of religion from the state. It means that the state should not discriminate among its citizens on the basis of religion. It should neither encourage nor discourage the followers of any religion. Four features of seculartsm in India are as follows There is no official religion for the Indian states, i.e. unlike Sri Lanka (Buddhism), Pakistan (Islam) and England (Christianity).

All individuals and communities have the freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion or not to follow any religion.
It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
It allows the state to interfere in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities, viz it bans untouchability.
Or
Caste inequalities are still prevalent in India. This statement can be explained in the following ways
In India, hereditary occupational division was sanctioned by rituals. Members of the same caste group form a social community. Often they maintain the same or similar occupation.

In India, most of the marriages are held in the same caste group. Intercaste marriage is not welcomed by all.
Sometimes people do not eat with members from other caste groups.
Untouchability has not ended completely, although it is prohibited by our Constitution.
Discrimination against the ‘outcast group’ is still prevalent in our society.

Section E
Section E consists of 3 Case-based questions of 4 marks each

Question 34.
Read the source given below and answer the questions the follow. On 13th April, 1919, the famous Jallianwala Bagh incident took place. On that day, a large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground at Jallianwala Bagh. Some came to protest against the government’s new repressive measures. Others had come to attend the annual Baisakhi fair. Being from outside the city, many villagers were unaware of the Martial Law that had been imposed. General Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points and opened fire on the crowd, killing hundreds.

His objects as he declared later, was to produce a moral effect, to create in the minds of satyagrahis a feeling of terror and awe. As the news of Jallianwala Bagh spread, crowds took to the streets in many North Indian towns.

There were strikes, clashes with the police, and attacks on government buildings. The government responded with the brutal
repression, seeking to humiliate and terrorise people. Satyagrahis were forced to rub their noses on the ground, crawl on the
streets and do Salam to all sahibs; people were flogged and villages (around Gujranwala in Punjab, now in Pakistan)
were bombed. Seeing violence spread, Mahatma Gandhi called off the movement.
(i) Why did General Dyer opened fire on the peaceful gathering at Jallianwala Bagh on 13th April, 1919? How did the government suppress the protests against Jallianwala Bagh massacre?
(ii) What were the effects of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre? (2)
Answer:
(i) On 13th April. 1919 General Dyer opened tire on the peaceful gathering at Jallianwala Bagh because he wanted to impose Martial Law very strictly in Amritsar in which military commander of a country has unlimited authority to make and enforce laws. The government suppress the protests against Jallianwala Bagh massacre with brutal repression, seeking to humiliate and terrorise people

(ii) The effects of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre were There were strikes, clashes with the police, and attacks on the government buildings. Government took repressive measures and forced satyagraha is to rub their noses on the ground

Question 35.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions. Shyamal tells us that every season he needs loans for cultivation on his 1.5 acres of land. Till a few years back, he would borrow money from the village moneylender at an interest rate of five percent per month (60% per annum). For the last few years, Shyamal has been borrowing from an agricultural trader in the village at an interest rate of three percent per month. At the beginning of the cropping season, the trader supplies the farm inputs on credit, which is to be repaid when the crops are ready for harvest. Besides the interest charge on the loan, the trader also makes the farmers promise to sell the crop to him.

This way the trader can ensure that the money is repaid promptly. Also, since the crop prices are low after the harvest, the trader is able to make a profit from buying the crop at a low price from the farmers and then selling it later when the price has risen. Wc next meet Arun who is supervising the work of one farm labourer. Arun has seven acres of land. He is one of the few persons in Sonpur to receive a bank loan for cultivation. The interest rate on the loan is 8.5 percent per annum and can be repaid anytime in the next three years. Arun plans to repay the loan after harvest by selling a part of the crop.

Then, he intends to store the rest of the potatoes in a cold storage and apply for a fresh loan from the bank against the cold
storage receipt. The bank offers this facility to farmers who have taken crop loans from them.
(i) When Shyarnal was borrowing from a local agricultural trader, he paid a lesser interest rate. Why? (1)
(ii) In the above case/source, which is the most favourable term of credit/loan borrowed by Arun for land cultivation? (1)
(iii) State the merits of the formal sector of credit. (2)
Answer:
(i) When Shyamal was borrowing from a local agricultural trader in the village, he paid a tesser interest rate because a part of credit was to be paid in kind and other in cash.
(ii) The most favourable terms of credit/loan borrowed by Arun for land cultivation are specified rate of interest and fixed time
period.
(iii) The merits of the formal sector of credit are
It provides loans at a fixed rate and terms.
It gives loans not just for profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small-scale industries and small
borrowers, etc.

Question 36.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
The main characteristic of commercial type of farming is the use of higher doses of modern inputs e.g. High Yielding Variety
(HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides in order to obtain higher productivity. The degree of
commercial of agriculture varies from one region to another. For example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop. Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.

The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital-intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers.

All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal, and coffee in Karnataka arc some of the important plantation crops grown in these states.

Since the production is mainly for market, a well-developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries, and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.
(i) What do you understand about commercial farming? (1)
(ii) What are the required climatic conditions of rubber plants? (1)
(iii) Evaluate the two merits of commercial farming. (2)
Answer:
(i) Commercial farming is a farming method that involves growing crops, raising livestock, selling produce on the market, and making money. Commercial agriculture mainly produces high-demand crops.
(ii) Rubber trees require moist and humid climates with heavy rainfall of more than 200cm. It grows well in equatorial climates and temperatures above 25°C.
(iii) Two merits of commercial farming are Commercial farming boosts the power supply to areas in the suburbs of farmed land since it uses machinery and electricity. It contributes to the improvement of local infrastructure. Roads are paved to facilitate the transit of goods and equipment quickly and comfortably.

Section F
Section F consists of Map based question of 5 marks

Question 37.
(a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on
the lines drawn near them. (2)
A. A place where movement of Indigo workers took place.
B. A place where the Civil Disobedience Movement took place.
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols. (3)
(i) Ncw Mangalore Seaport
(ii) Software Technology Park in Tamil Nadu.
(iii) Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport
(iv) Singrauli Thermal Power Plant

Answer: